Proof that if ax ≡ bx (mod m) and gcd(x, m) = 1, then a ≡ b (mod m)
If \(ax ≡ bx \bmod m\):
$$\begin{gathered} m \mid (ax-bx) \\ m \mid x(a-b) \end{gathered}$$
If \(gcd(x, m) = 1\):
$$\begin{gathered}1 = j(x) + k(m) \quad (where \ j, k \in ℤ)\\ (a-b) = j(a-b)(x) + k(a-b)(m) \end{gathered}$$
Since \(m \mid (a-b)(x)\) and \(m \mid (a-b)(m)\), then:
$$\begin{gathered} m \mid j(a-b)(x) + k(a-b)(m) \\ m \mid (a-b) \end{gathered}$$
Therefore \(a ≡ b \bmod m\).